"...works better with addicts who used opiates for two years or less, while methadone is preferred for long-term users." This is the statement in the Times-Tribune story of 13 Feb. entitled, "Treatment still facing hurdles in regulation." The quote reflects what is frequently heard and read. The question is: is there any evidence to support either the "better" effect of buprenorphine on relatively recent users, or the "better" outcomes of methadone with longer-term users of opiates? I don't think so - but would welcome citations on the point.
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